Does the Bible instruct us to "Confess our sins?" |
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Let's have a look at a few scriptures that refer to this, and then we'll analyze them by asking some critical questions.
1 John 1:9: If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
James 5:16 Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.
Proverbs 28:13 He that covereth his sins shall not prosper: but whoso confesseth and forsaketh them shall have mercy.
Psalm 32:5 I acknowledge my sin unto thee, and mine iniquity have I not hid. I said, I will confess my transgressions unto the Lord; and thou forgavest the iniquity of my sin.
Leviticus 5:5 And it shall be, when he shall be guilty in one of these things, that he shall confess that he hath sinned in that thing.
- Who wrote it?
- To whom is it addressed? and,
- What is the context of the verse?
From the above verses, let's look at 1 John 1:9 and James 5:16.
James wrote his letter to the twelve tribes which were scattered abroad, (Jam.1:1). So, clearly this is addressed to Jews, and based on the content of the rest of his letter, it was those who were still operating under the law. We also know that John addressed his letters to his Jewish brethren (because of this reference in Gal.2:9; that the Jewish apostles would minister to the circumcision (Jews), and Paul would minister to the uncircumcision (Gentiles)). Not only was John writing to the Jews, but notice the word "if" in John's statement. He says that confessing sins is the conditional requirement for forgiveness of sins. This makes it very clear that it is still connected to the law. Where there are conditions, there is law!
So, by identifying that both these verses are addressed to New Testament Jews who were still operating under the law covenant, we can determine that the confessional instructions given are applicable to them and not to the Church, the body of Christ.
Similarly, the last 3 scriptures, Proverbs 28:13, Psalms 32:5 and Leviticus 5:5, are obviously written by, and addressed to Jews under the Old Testament and during the Law Covenant. If we look at the concept of confessing sins in the Old Testament, we can easily understand that confession was an act of obedience and faith during the process of atonement. As part of the sacrificial process, sins were confessed (spoken) over the scapegoat and it was subsequently driven out into the wilderness. For more details on the process, refer to these passages, Leviticus 16:21; Leviticus 26:40; Numbers 5:6-7; Ezra 10:1; Nehemiah 9:1-38; Daniel 9:20.
But what about us who are not under law and who operate under a different set of dispensational instructions? Unlike what James and John writes to the Jews, the Apostle to the Gentiles, Paul, never suggests that members of the Body of Christ must confess sins. Paul received a deeper truth from the ascended Christ for "the body of Christ", and this does not contain instructions regarding the confessing of our sins. Paul only mentions the word "confessing" (Gk, homologeo, "acknowledge") in the context of "acknowledging Jesus Christ is Lord", as we see in Romans 10:10.
Since we are not under the law, we do not practice confession of sins because our salvation and fellowship with God are NOT dependent of our performance. We are forgiven, apart from anything we have done. In Colossians 2:13, our Apostle Paul tells us that we are "forgiven of all trespasses [in Christ]". In Ephesians 4:32 it is written, "God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you", and Colossians 3:13, "even as Christ forgave you, so also do ye". We are forgiven (past tense), not because we confess our sins, but because of Christ’s finished cross work on Calvary. In Christ, we have unbroken fellowship with God forever and ever. How many times can we be forgiven of "all unrighteousness?" Only once. In Christ, now and forever, we are forgiven of all sins ----past, present, and future!
Let me leave you with this very interesting thought, (which should actually be the subject of a whole new article!) We must understand (again due to the progressive nature of dispensational
truth and right dividing) that John was writing to Jews who were facing the
tribulation and needed advice (correct doctrine) for that time. The New
Testament letters from Hebrews to Revelation is not addressed to the Body of
Christ and is not doctrine for us today. As Romans to Philemon is doctrine written for us today during the grace age, so we can know and live the grace doctrine, Hebrews to Revelation is doctrine specific for the Jews and
Gentile proselytes for instruction during the tribulation and beyond. Remember, if the Jews
had believed in their Messiah during that first century, the tribulation and
the Millennial Kingdom would have come. The fact that this program was delayed
by a gap of ±2000 years does not change the advice and doctrine given in these
letters.
In Conclusion
We must always read into the proper context of scripture and know who wrote the text and to whom it was written. If we keep to this hermeneutic, we will ensure an accurate and contextual interpretation of the Bible. We cannot confess our sins today! Why? If all my sins have already been forgiven....what am I confessing to then? Also consider 2 Cor.5:21,
2 Cor.5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
God has imputed to us the righteousness of Jesus Christ. Since I am cloaked with His righteousness and (positionally) stand perfected before God, what is there to forgive? Friends, think of it, ----if I have to continually confess my sins, am I not putting more faith in my sins than in the perfected cross work of Christ? Am I not diminishing His 'once for all' sacrifice that takes away my sins completely if I believe I must continually confess? Does this not become a work if I believe I must ask God for forgiveness? Please understand, we're not dependent on ourselves! We should NEVER be dependent on our actions to be right with God! Why? Because it's not about us, its only in Christ!
Jews in the Kingdom program are saved by faith which included the requirement of works (Jam.2:14), which proved (verified) their faith. Unlike with the Body of Christ, for them, forgiveness is not automatic. John (1 John 1:9) instructed these believers that during the tribulation, they will now need to confess sins again. To confess means to 'agree with God that they are guilty'. Notice that, right in the middle of the tribulation (see Rev 12:17), the remnant of God is referenced as those who "keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ".
Rev 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God , and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.
Today we are under unconditional grace, not under conditional law (Rom 6:14). We are not under a performance based system to enable us to be right by God. We are under faith alone! Confession of sins for forgiveness makes it conditional. The Body of Christ is not under conditional doctrine today! Compare Matt.6:15 (If you do not forgive...) with Col.2:13, and Eph.4:32, where there are no conditional statements regarding forgiveness.
Do we need to 'confess our sins'? No! It was a work (an act of faith) that was necessary under the previous dispensation, but not for us. We do NOT rely on confession of sin to be in right standing with God. Of course there is nothing wrong with coming to God with a sincere apologetic prayer if you have grieved the Holy Spirit or have fallen to sin or temptation. We do this out of courtesy and love between our family and friends, so there is no reason why we cannot share our feelings with God and maintain our relationship with Him as we would with our family and friends. I trust you understand the difference here. We are already (and remain) completely forgiven of our sins, but when we fall, a prayer from a contrite heart and through love for God will always be received.
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